fiendish spirit," as many an enemy of the Bible has said, but because they will not be saved will not love virtue for virtue's sake, but "have pleasure in unrighteousness and "glory in their shame."

My friend, of course, will never believe as I do upon the subject of this discussion, for in his last speech he said, "I would not if I could." Aye, that is the secret of much unbelief. "I would not if I could." What if my friend had stood in the garden when God made man and gave him control of the world; do you not suppose he would have said, "I would not if I could" believe that tears and sighs and sad wails will freight every breeze that goes up to heaven for thousands of years? If my good friend had the control of this world I suppose he would have no sin or suffering at all in it. But he does not control it. And if God does not control it to suit him, he will not submit; but will say, "I would not if I could."

RECAPITULATION.

We agree that Jesus taught, when here, that he would come again; that he would come to judge the world, and that from that judgment the wicked would be punished, and that their punishment would be what the Bible calls everlasting. In all this we agree. I have taken the ground that this coming of Christ to judge. the world, foretold by himself and often referred to by his inspired apostles, is yet future. This my opponent has stoutly denied, asserting, on the other hand, that it took place when the "kingdom was set up," and that the judgment day is the Gospel day - began when Christ entered upon his reign. At least this has seemed to be his position, at times, though at other times he has argued

as stoutly that Christ came at the destruction of Jerusalem, and that that was the day of judgment.

I. I have shown that the coming of Christ to judge the world is described as a coming "in his glory, and all the holy angels with him " Matt. xxv. 31. At his coming "in his glory, and all the holy angels with him," the dead are to be raised, the world judged, the saints glorified, and the wicked punished. I find all this in one passage:

'Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you, and to you who are troubled rest with us, WHEN the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels, [evidently same coming of Matt. xxv.] in flaming fire, taking vengeance on them that know not God and that obey not the Gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ, who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord and the glory of his power, when he shall come to be glorified in his saints." 2 Thes. i. 6-10.

The gentleman admits that this passage and that in Matt. xxv. refer to the same judgment and punishment, and thus concedes that the coming of Christ in judgment to punish the wicked, is the same as his coming to be glorified in his saints." And the coming of Christ to be glorified in his saints" is his coming to raise the dead. This, I think, I have clearly shown. I will briefly refer again to the scriptures by which I claim to have done so. "When Christ, our life, shall appear, then shall ye also appear with him in glory.” Col. iii. 4. This cannot refer to Christ's appearing "in his kingdom," for that was past, and the Colossians were in the kingdom already, as we learn in the first chapter of this Epistle. It cannot refer to what my friend calls Christ's coming at the destruction of Jerusalem, for then the Colossians did

not appear with him in glory." It cannot be shown that one single Colossian Christian was ever in Jerusalem. But to prove what is meant by Christ being "glorified in his saints" and his saints appearing "with him in glory," I quoted Philip. iii. 18-21, where, after speaking of the "enemies of the cross of Christ, whose end is destruction," the apostle says, "For our conversation is in heaven, from whence also we look for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body." Here we have the "destruction of the enemies of the cross of Christ" connected with the coming of Christ from heaven to "change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body." This is evidently future. But to prove this to my opponent's satisfaction even, I have shown that this coming is the same as that spoken of in 1 Cor. xv., which he admits is connected with the "immortal resurrection." Let us again notice the teaching of that chapter: "As in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive, but every man in his own order, at his coming." Verses 22, 23. Then, at verse 25, the apostle speaks of the destruction of the "enemies," just as in the passage in Philippians. And in verses 42, 43, 44, he speaks of the change of "our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body," in language substantially the same as that in Philippians. Here it is: "So also is the resurrection of the dead. * It is sown in dishonor, [that is, a 'vile body,'] it is raised in glory, [that is, fashioned like unto his glorious body,'] it is sown in weakness, it is raised in power; it is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body." Who cannot see that the teaching of these passages is identically the same? This

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last one is the only one my friend can afford to admit teaches a resurrection of the dead, and I identify its teaching with that of others from the same apostles, and thereby show that it refers to the coming of Christ to raise the dead, judge the world, punish the wicked, and "to be glorified in his saints." So he will have to deny that even the 15th of Corinthians teaches a future resurrection of the dead — which, by the way, he did, while on the former proposition. His resurrection is past! And his final salvation of all mankind is past, too! Let me show this in a few words. You remember, that while on the former question he quoted-or, rather misquoted -Peter's language in Acts iii. 21, wherein the apostle speaks of "the times of restitution of all things," etc., and made "restitution of all things," mean the reconciliation and salvation of all men. Now, let us read the whole verse in connection with the preceding one: "And he shall send Jesus Christ, who before was preached unto you; whom the heaven must receive UNTIL the times of restitution of all things which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began." Here the apostle speaks of Jesus being sent to our world again; but the heaven must receive" him, he says, UNTIL the times of restitution of all things," etc. But my friend says the heaven only received him until Jerusalem was destroyed, and that then he was sent again; and, therefore, "the times of restitution of all things" -and hence Mr. Manford's universal salvation- was fulfilled when Jerusalem was destroyed!! So my friend. has crowded the coming of Christ, the resurrection, the judgment, the punishment of the wicked, and his universal salvation, all into the past! Are Universalists ready to accept all this, simply to get by the judgment?! But

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to show more conclusively that the coming of the Lord. to be glorified in his saints is future, and to take place at the resurrection, I read 1 Thes. iv. 13-17:

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"But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others who have no hope. For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, [Matt. xxiv., 'the word of the Lord' is found,] that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not go before them which are asleep. For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God; and the dead in Christ shall rise first; then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air; and so shall we ever be with the Lord."

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This the gentleman makes figurative, notwithstanding it is almost word for word the same as the same apostle's teaching in the 15th of Corinthians, which he makes. literal! Let us compare some of the apostle's language in the 15th of Corinthians with this to the Thessalonians. In the 51st and 52d verses of that chapter he says: Behold, I show you a mystery: we shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump; for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shali be changed." Who can read these two passages from these two letters of the same apostle and not conclude that he is treating of the same subject in both? I

am ready to say no candid man can.

II. I have also shown by scriptures bearing directly upon the subject, that the judgment connected with the coming of Christ is to be after death, and, therefore, fu